Hello,
after 3 years from TC, a wedding and 2 years of happy marriage, we decided to have babies (the goal was 2 or more...).
Back in 2004 i had a bilateral non-nerve sparing L-RPLND, which meant, as we knew, retrograde ejaculation. Having banked sperm back then, i wasn't worried, not until recently our first in vitro insemination failed after transpant: even though there are less than 40% of probability to get pregnant (every "try"), failure was unexpected because embryos translplanted were VERY good (three embryos: A A B). My wife is young, every other analysis was OK, so we thought (hoped) it was goign to be realtivly "easy".
After this first try, the doctor requested an analisis of my semen, believing it could be affected by (as they call it) "DNA fracture" (which is not chemo related but should be genetic), and fracture of the DNA in sperm lowers probability to less than 10% every "try". So he wanted a sample of my semen to perform a "Tunel test" to see if, indeed, there could be this problem.
So, suffering from retrograde, I had to collect semen through urine. Well, at least i tried because (and finally I get to the point) analysis showed that in my urine there is NO semen!!! Where is it gone? Where does it go? I believe that neither chemo (BEP in my case) neither RPLND have the "ability" to transform a sperm producing man in a non producing individual, or am I wrong? RPLND could (if bilateral) give retrograde eiaculation, not aspermia! And if it's not in the urine, where is it? Does sperm remain in the testicle, or maybe somewhere in my body? Or simply am i not producing it anymore?
Thanks in advance for you thoughts, I am quite worried because I have only 20 pallets in the "bank" (maybe good for 6 or 7 more tries) which means (if DNA fracture is confirmed) 6 or 7 time a little 10% of probability to be a dad.
after 3 years from TC, a wedding and 2 years of happy marriage, we decided to have babies (the goal was 2 or more...).
Back in 2004 i had a bilateral non-nerve sparing L-RPLND, which meant, as we knew, retrograde ejaculation. Having banked sperm back then, i wasn't worried, not until recently our first in vitro insemination failed after transpant: even though there are less than 40% of probability to get pregnant (every "try"), failure was unexpected because embryos translplanted were VERY good (three embryos: A A B). My wife is young, every other analysis was OK, so we thought (hoped) it was goign to be realtivly "easy".
After this first try, the doctor requested an analisis of my semen, believing it could be affected by (as they call it) "DNA fracture" (which is not chemo related but should be genetic), and fracture of the DNA in sperm lowers probability to less than 10% every "try". So he wanted a sample of my semen to perform a "Tunel test" to see if, indeed, there could be this problem.
So, suffering from retrograde, I had to collect semen through urine. Well, at least i tried because (and finally I get to the point) analysis showed that in my urine there is NO semen!!! Where is it gone? Where does it go? I believe that neither chemo (BEP in my case) neither RPLND have the "ability" to transform a sperm producing man in a non producing individual, or am I wrong? RPLND could (if bilateral) give retrograde eiaculation, not aspermia! And if it's not in the urine, where is it? Does sperm remain in the testicle, or maybe somewhere in my body? Or simply am i not producing it anymore?
Thanks in advance for you thoughts, I am quite worried because I have only 20 pallets in the "bank" (maybe good for 6 or 7 more tries) which means (if DNA fracture is confirmed) 6 or 7 time a little 10% of probability to be a dad.
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