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  • #16
    Originally posted by chris0
    Another thing is that there is no sign whatsoever of tumors etc in the CT scans, X-Rays, and like i said my hCG levels are back to non existent. Could this have anything to do with the doctors choice of only 2 cycles?
    If all of your tests came out clean after the orchiectomy, then you should have been diagnosed at stage I. Am I missing something here? Why would this be considered stage II?

    If you are in fact stage I, the chemo is considered adjuvant treatment and two cycles is probably correct. Normally, you read about two cycles of Carboplatin being used in this case, since it is much less toxic than BEP.

    -TSX

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    • #17
      Well the doctor told me that the TC was stage 2 due to the location of the tumor in/on the testicle?? Well looks like i should meet up with an oncologist in perhaps england or sweden since i will be visiting both places in the next month or two then!

      Thanks for all the help, its very much appreciated!!!
      2 x TC

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      • #18
        Originally posted by chris0
        Well the doctor told me that the TC was stage 2 due to the location of the tumor in/on the testicle??
        Stage II means spread to retroperitoneal lymph nodes. It does sound as though you are stage I and receiving adjuvant therapy. (Carboplatin would be for stage I seminoma.)
        Scott
        right inguinal orchiectomy 6/5/2003 > nonseminoma, stage I > surveillance > L-RPLND 6/24/2005 for recurrence, suspected teratoma but found seminoma, stage II > chylous ascites until 9/2005 > surveillance and "all clear" since

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        • #19
          Originally posted by chris0
          Well the doctor told me that the TC was stage 2 due to the location of the tumor in/on the testicle??
          Maybe rather than "stage II," you were told "pT2" as part of the staging information? That would mean vascular or lymphatic invasion, which increases the likelihood of, but doesn't guarantee, metastasis.
          Scott
          right inguinal orchiectomy 6/5/2003 > nonseminoma, stage I > surveillance > L-RPLND 6/24/2005 for recurrence, suspected teratoma but found seminoma, stage II > chylous ascites until 9/2005 > surveillance and "all clear" since

          Your donation funds Livestrong services for people facing cancer now. Please sponsor my ride!

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          • #20
            Originally posted by Scott
            Maybe rather than "stage II," you were told "pT2" as part of the staging information? That would mean vascular or lymphatic invasion, which increases the likelihood of, but doesn't guarantee, metastasis.
            Oh my god Excellent, see i had a hard time understanding the doctor, cause he kept on drawing pictures of the testicle and the location of the tumor, so basically this would be very good news to a confused me! I will get this all cleared up tomorrow morning then!

            Hopefully this is very good news! Thank you

            Edit: The doctors Enlgish is so so, and i think he managed to confuse the translator as well (Living in poland if i havnt mentioned it before)
            2 x TC

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