On 7/19/06 my boyfriend went to ER experiencing severe back pain. After CT scan it was discovered that he had a left retroperitoneal mass of which a biopsy showed a malignant spindle cell neoplasm, not attached to any organ and with an inflamed lymph node. On 8/29 the lymph node was biopsied and the day before his birthday on 9/1 was told that he had testicular cancer. The biposy was showing pure seminoma. On 9/15 the oncologist referred him to a urologist to have the testicle removed, however on 9/20 the urolgist said that this was not necessary because there was no mass in the testicle. On 10/2/06 he began his chemo treatments as an inpatient. He had a port inserted and went through 3 cycles of chemo- each cycle was 1 week inpatient and Bleo 1 time each week as an outpt. He tolerated the chemo real well however the last week of inpatient treatment the port became infected and had to be removed. A pic line was inserted to complete the last 3 weeks of treatment. He had IV antibiotics at home and developed bloodclots in his arm, then had to be admitted to hospital for 2 blood transfusions. As a result of these blood clots he is now on coumadin for about 1 year as per his oncologist. In middle of Dec he began experiencing back pain and 12/27 had a MRI and bone scan and this showed that his left retroperitoneal mass had shrunk to half the original size and the lymph node was completely resolved and showed no new lymph node enlargement. The bone scan showed he has hemangioma on L-3 and that there was something showing on the T11 and T12. A biopsy of the T11 and T12 showed no cancer. This was followed by a PET scan and CT scan on 3/1/07 and what appears on the T-11 and 12 is osteomylitis with probable heart valve inflamation which they say is a likely result of the port infection. He will have a heart study this week to verify and will then be put on antibiotics for the infection. These tests also showed that the retroperitoneal mass had shrunk even smaller so hopefully it will disappear in time. The oncologist is very satisfied with the results. Now my big question is ...on 2/8/07 he went back to urologist to see about having the testicle removed and again the dr is saying no because there is no mass. He also had an ultrasound to confirm this. However,both of us believe it should be removed. When he questions the oncologist she says that it is up to the urologist as to whether this procedure is necessary. He has been through so much and we want to do the right thing. It was my belief that anytime that the cancer is seminoma the testicle was to be removed regardless of a mass. Who do we believe?? Hope you can advise us...we are very confused.
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If there's no sign of a mass in the testicle, perhaps what he had was an extragonadal germ cell cancer (EGC). See this page at the Testicular Cancer Resource Center.Scott, [email protected]
right inguinal orchiectomy 6/5/2003 > nonseminoma, stage I > surveillance > L-RPLND 6/24/2005 for recurrence, suspected teratoma but found seminoma, stage II > chylous ascites until 9/2005 > surveillance and "all clear" since
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It's not common but it seems that your boyfriend has a form of testicular cancer that does not involve the testicle. I know it seems weird but have a testicle removed will not help his situation. This may sound odd but your doctor should be thanked for not doing an operation that to us laymen seems necessary but really isn't.Last edited by dadmo; 03-13-07, 07:33 AM.Son Jason diagnosed 4/30/04, stage III. Right I/O 4/30/04. Graduated College 5/13/04. 4XEP 6/7/04 - 8/13/04. Full open RPLND 10/13/04. All Clear since.
Treated by Dr. Rakowski of Midland Park, NJ. Visited Sloan Kettering for protocol advice. RPLND done at Sloan Kettering.
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Originally posted by ScottIf there's no sign of a mass in the testicle, perhaps what he had was an extragonadal germ cell cancer (EGC). See this page at the Testicular Cancer Resource Center.
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